As
regards the first issue, whether this application is urgent, the
starting point is Rule 244 of the High Court Rules 1971. It states;
“Where
a chamber application is accompanied by a certificate from a legal
practitioner in terms of paragraph (b) of subrule (2) of Rule 242, to
the effect that the matter is urgent, ...
As
regards the first issue, whether this application is urgent, the
starting point is Rule 244 of the High Court Rules 1971. It states;
“Where
a chamber application is accompanied by a certificate from a legal
practitioner in terms of paragraph (b) of subrule (2) of Rule 242, to
the effect that the matter is urgent, giving
reasons for its urgency,
the Registrar shall immediately submit it to a judge who shall
consider the papers forthwith.
Provided
that, before granting or refusing the order sought, the judge may
direct that any interested person be invited to make representations,
in such manner and within such time as the judge may direct, as to
whether the application should be treated as urgent.”…,.
In
Kuvarega
v Registrar-General and Another
1998 (1) ZLR 188 (H) CHATIKOBO J remarked;
“Applications
are frequently made for urgent relief. What constitutes urgency is
not only the imminent arrival of the day of reckoning; a
matter is also urgent if, at the time the need to act arises, the
matter cannot wait.
Urgency which stems from a deliberate or careless abstention from
action until the deadline draws near is not the type of urgency
contemplated by the rules. If there has been any delay, the
certificate of urgency or supporting affidavit must contain an
explanation of the non-timeous action.”…,.
The
matter was recently succinctly put by MALABA DCJ while dealing with
what should be set out in a founding affidavit and certificate of
urgency in Mayor
Logistics (Pvt) Ltd v ZRA
2014
(2) ZLR 78 (C) as follows;
“A
party seeking to be accorded such preferential treatment must set
out, in the founding affidavit, facts which distinguish the case from
others to justify the granting of the order for an urgent hearing
without breach of the principle that similarly situated litigants are
entitled to be treated alike.”
It
is trite that, generally, an application for a spoliation order
should be dealt with on an urgent basis – Gifford
v Muzire and Others
2007 (2) 131 (H). It is also accepted that where a situation has
existed for a significant time before an application is mounted such
an application will be deemed not urgent. See Gwarada
v Johnson and Others
2009 (2) ZLR 159 (H) where the court remarked thus;
“Urgency
arises when an event occurs which requires contemporaneous resolution
the absence of which would cause extreme prejudice to the applicant.
The applicant must exhibit urgency in the manner in which he has
reacted to the event or threat.”
In
an urgent application, the applicant must act with the utmost good
faith and lay all relevant facts before the court – Bulawayo
Dialogue Institute v Matyatya NO and Others
2003 (2) ZLR 79 (H); Grasprak
Investments (Pvt) Ltd v Delta OPS (Pvt) Ltd and Another
2001 (2) ZLR 551 (H). Further, urgency need not only be established
but the applicant himself must have treated the matter as urgent -
Madzivanzira
and Others v Dexpoint Investments (Pvt) Ltd and Another
2002 (2) ZLR 316 (H).
Applying
these principles to the facts in casu
I find it extremely difficult to conclude, for a number of reasons,
that this application is urgent.
(i)
Firstly, the applicant does not, in his founding affidavit, state
when he was despoiled. The certificate of urgency, signed by a legal
practitioner, is also silent on this crucial point. I say this is a
crucial issue because of the chequered history of the parties. It is
common cause that the parties are embroiled in a running legal battle
that started in 2015 under cover of case number HC920/15. It spilt
into 2016 under cover of case number HC1457/16. Both cases are
pending determination. Case number HC920/15 was referred to trial on
31 May 2016. Consequently, it becomes totally meaningless, in my
view, for the applicant to simply file an urgent application on 24
June 2016 for a spoliation order without specifically stating when
the conduct he is complaining about occured.
How
is a court expected to ascertain the urgency of such an application?
How is it possible to assess whether the applicant has acted
timeously or not in the absence of a precise and specific averment on
when he was dispossessed of the property?
(ii)
Secondly,
the applicant, in my view, has not made a full disclosure of all
material facts in that he has dishonestly concealed material facts.
For example, he refers to Plot 14 as his plot when in actual fact it
is not his plot. Let me reproduce portions of his founding affidavit
in order to illustrate the points I am making. In Paragraph 5, he
gives the background as follows;
“5.
I was allocated a plot in the year 2000 at Richardson Farm. I annex
hereto and mark 'A' a copy of the offer letter.”
What
should be noted is that he does not indicate the plot number and the
so-called offer letter is not annexed at all.
“6.
In 2005, the plot was increased from 100 hectares to 300 hectares as
I was carrying on successful farming activities. The extension was
approved by all the relevant bodies. However, the Minister of Lands
and Rural Resettlements did not regularize the change in boundaries.
7.
I have been in occupation of my plot with shifted boundaries for the
past
15 years.
The plot
number is 14 on paper but 9 on the ground.
8.
Meanwhile, the respondent voluntarily moved out of his plot 14 on
paper but number 9 on the ground. This has been obtaining for the 15
years and either party has been in occupation without any disturbance
or interference from the other.”
No
documentary proof whatsoever has been attached in support of the
averments in paragraph 6 in respect of “shifted boundaries.”
Also, the apparently confusing and meaningless phrase “Plot 14 on
paper but 9 on the ground” has been left unexplained. Instead, the
applicant
claims that Plot 14 is his. This, in my view, is when the element of
dishonesty comes in because the undisputed facts are that the
applicant was offered Plot 13 while the respondent was offered Plot
14 of the same farm. For some reason, the applicant has made
overtures to the relevant authorities for permission to own Plot 14.
This quest has triggered numerous legal disputes between the parties.
In
paragraph 9 of his founding affidavit, the applicant states:
“9.
On 10th
April 2015, the respondent caused to be issued, undercover of case
number HC920/15, summons against myself wherein he claimed an order
declaring that he is the lawful owner of Plot 14. I defended that
matter through my legal practitioners of record and the matter
reached pre-trial conference stage wherein the Hon. Mr Justice
MATHONSI referred the matter to trial.
10.
Pending
the determination of that matter, the respondent has, in his wisdom,
seen it fit to attend to
the farm I am occupying
and wreak all manner of havoc.
11.
Initially he came with old tyres and dumped them in my yard. Later,
he was
to return and erect a fence around a portion of the farm, and,
resultantly, cordone off the area making it inaccessible to me.”…,.
Quite
evidently, the applicant has not divulged when
the respondent allegedly “attended to the farm” or erected the
fence. The use of words like “initially” and” later” are so
vague that they tempt the court to venture into speculative mode.
I
am aware that the applicant has filed what he called an “answering
affidavit” in which he rather belatedly stated that he was
despoiled on 12 June 2016. In my view, the applicant's case must
stand or fall on the basis of the affidavits.
In
casu,
the founding affidavit, and the certificate of urgency, do not give
the dates nor the Plot in issue. Allowing an answering affidavit in
this case would seriously prejudice the respondent in that it
deprives the respondent of an opportunity to deal with those issues.
An
answering affidavit is provided for in court applications in Rule 234
of the rules and not in chamber applications. In terms of Rule 235,
after an answering affidavit has been filed no further affidavits may
be filed without the leave of a court or a judge. I take the view
that a cause of action must be set out in the founding affidavit. It
is improper to raise new matters in an answering affidavit. See
Magwiza
v Ziumbe NO and Another
2000 (2) ZLR 489 (S)….,.
The
fact of urgency must appear from the founding affidavit, and where no
such averment is made in that affidavit, there will be no legal basis
for a legal practitioner to issue a certificate of urgency as that
certificate is, in turn, based on the founding affidavit. Logically,
if there is no valid certificate of urgency then Rule 244 has not
been complied with.
In
Econet
Wireless (Pvt) Ltd v Postal and Telecommunications Regulatory
Authority of Zimbabwe
2014 (2) ZLR 693 (H), DUBE J remarked that;
“A
certificate of urgency is required to be premised on a founding
affidavit….,. A legal practitioner cannot certify a matter as being
urgent where the applicant itself does not hold the view that the
matter is urgent. The founding affidavit must disclose urgency. The
deponent to the founding affidavit should therefore be alive to the
fact that he is bringing a matter to court on an urgent basis. It is
incumbent upon him to articulate fully, in his affidavit, why he is
bringing the matter on an urgent basis and why he cannot wait and
enroll the matter on the ordinary roll. He cannot simply regurgitate
the history of the matter and expect that he may persuade the court
to find the matter urgent by merely outlining the irreparable harm
likely to ensue. He must make specific averments on the allegation
that the matter is urgent and cannot wait….,. Nor can the deponent
to the founding affidavit leave it to his counsel to address the
issue of urgency of the matter at the hearing either…,.”
In
casu,
both the founding affidavit and the certificate of urgency are
woefully inadequate. For these reasons, I come to the conclusion that
the applicant has failed to establish urgency in this matter.
Accordingly, it is ordered that;
1.
The application is not urgent.
2.
The applicant shall pay costs of this application.